adjusted p-values for group comparisons

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This topic contains 2 replies, has 3 voices, and was last updated by  Jeff 2 months, 1 week ago.

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  • #22276 Reply

    johnsojp
    Participant

    Hello again Mite and company,
    I’m a little confused about the fdr values that are shown when I look at group comparisons of nodal measures. I’m comparing two groups using weighted undirected graphs with anticorrelations set to zero and I have noticed that the fdr(1-tailed) and fdr(2-tailed) are the same across all of the regions.

    I’m guessing that these do NOT reflect fdr-corrected p-values, but maybe represent the cutoff for significance after fdr correction–is that correct?

    In other words, if the p(2-tailed) for global efficiency is .002 and the fdr(2-tailed) = .012, would it be correct to interpret that as a significant result (i.e., global efficiency for this region is significantly different between my groups)? On the other hand, if global efficiency = .02, the result would not be significant because the value is greater than the fdr of .012?

    If all of that is correct, what does it mean when the fdr value is 0? Is that simply telling me there are no significant results for that measure after fdr correction?

    Thank you very much for the clarification!

    Best,
    Jeff

    #22318 Reply

    Mite Mijalkov
    Keymaster

    Hi Jeff,

    Yes, your conclusions that you mentioned above are correct. In fact, we discussed these issues with the p-values and fdr correction table in another post. There, I offered a detailed explanation about how to interpret the fdr values shown in the tables in Braph:

    Confidence Intervals and p statistic

    EEG graph analysis

    I hope that this information helps you. If you need to discuss any other possible problem, please do not hesitate to contact me.

    Best,
    Mite

    • This reply was modified 2 months, 2 weeks ago by  Mite Mijalkov.
    #22335 Reply

    Jeff

    Thanks for your response Mite–very much appreciated!

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